6:02 AM
Unknown
Pelajaran : BAHASA
INGGRIS
Waktu : 120
Menit
By : Ahmad Murjoko
By : Ahmad Murjoko
Pilihlah salah satu jawaban yang tepat ! Jangan
lupa Berdoa dan memulai dari yang mudah .
Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance
to show how well you understand spoken English. There are 3 parts to this
section, with special directions for each part.
Part I.
Questions 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues
or questions spoken in English. The dialogues or questions will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say.
After you hear a dialogue and the question about it,
read the four possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to
the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will
hear:
Man :
How about working late tonight?
Woman : I
can’t. I have plans.
Narrator:
What will the woman do?
You will also hear: Sample
answer
A. Do
her plan.
B. Leave her work.
C. Work over time.
D. Work late tonight.
E. Give the work to the man.
The best answer to the question “What will the woman
do?” is choice (A), “Do her plan.”
Therefore,
you should choose answer (A).
1. A. The
accident of the sky diver.
B. The death of the sky diver.
C. The accident of a plane.
D. The sky diver’s action.
E. The sky diver’s show.
2. A. He felt
exhausted.
B. He fell while walking.
C. He fell out of a plane.
D. A parachute fell on him.
E. His two parachutes didn’t open.
3. A. He was
crazy.
B. He fell out of a plane.
C. He was severe bleeding.
D. They thought he was dead.
E. He had many broken bones.
4.
A B
C
D
E
 |
5. A B
 |
 |
C D
E
Part II.
Questions 6
to 12
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several
questions or statements spoken in English. The questions and responses will be
spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you
must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You have to choose
the best response to each question or statement.
6. Mark your
answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
9. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
11. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
12. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
Part III.
Questions 13
to 15.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear a monologue.
The monologue will be spoken two times. It will not be printed in your test
book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
After you hear a monologue and the questions about it,
read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to
the questions you have heard.
13.
A. Robert Edwards’ blindness.
B. Robert Edwards’ accident.
C. Robert Edwards’ suffering.
D. Robert Edwards’ tragedy.
E. Robert Edwards’ life.
14.
A. His wife.
B. lighting.
C. a clock.
D. a tree.
E. a car.
15.
A. hiding from the storm under a tree.
B. lying on the ground.
C. climbing a tree.
D. driving a car.
E. staying at home.
This is the end of the listening section
Questions 16 to 20 refer to the following
text.
There have been a number of
important American novelists in this century, but F. Scott Fitzgerald is one of
the more interesting ones. Born in 1896 and educated at Princeton,
he wrote novels that describe the post-war American society, very much caught
up in the rhythms of jazz.
In
1920, the same year that he published his first book, This Side of Paradise, he
married Zelda Sayre, also a writer. His most famous book, The Greet Gatsby,
appeared in 1925.
Fitzgerald
had a great natural talent, but he became a compulsive drinker. A brilliant
success in his youth, he never made the adjustments necessary to a maturing
writer in a changing world. His later novels, All the Sad Young Men, Tender is
the Night, and The Last Tycoon, were less successful, so that when he died in
1940 his books were out of print and he had been almost forgotten.
His
reputation now is far greater than it was in his lifetime, especially since the
film version of his novel The Great Gatsby was released.
16. What is the text about?
A. Film versions of F. Scott
Fitzgerald’s.
B. First novels by young authors.
C. F. Scott Fitzgerald’s work.
D. Novelists of this century.
E. F. Scott Fitzgerald’s expert.
17. What is the main idea of the
third paragraph?
A. An ability movement.
B. A talent permanent.
C. A behavior change.
D. A mature thought.
E. A successful work.
18. Which of Fitzgerald’s novels
has been made into movie?
A. All the Sad Young Men.
B. Tender is the Night.
C. The Great Gatsby.
D. The Last Tycoon
E. Zelda Sayre.
19. In 1920, the same year that he published his first book, This Side
of Paradise, he married Zelda Sayre,
also a writer. (Paragraph 2)
The underlined word has
the same meaning as ….
A. Happiness
B. Delighted
C. Perfect
D. Blesses
E. Heaven
20. What is the purpose of the text?
A. To analyze the writer.
B. To criticize the writer
C. To persuade the
listener.
D. To inform the reader.
E. To entertain the reader.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following text.
MEDICINE FOR CHILDREN
Researchers are being invited to
submit ideas for research into medicines or children as part of a new initiative
by the Health Technology Assessment (HTA) programme. The programme is
commissioning a portfolio of research projects into the area as part of its
work with the newly created Medicines for Children Research Network (MCRN), set
up to target the development of safe and effective medicines for the treatment
of youngsters aged newborn to 18.
“Recent studies suggest that in the UK more than half of the medicines prescribed
for babies in neonatal intensive care are unlicensed or off-label, and up to a
quarter of all medicines prescribed in pediatric inpatient care fall into this
category,” says Professor Tom Walley, Director of the HTA programme and
Professor of Clinical Pharmacology in the Prescribing Research Group at the
Department of Pharmacology and Therapeutics, University of Liverpool. “The MCRN
has been set up to investigate safe and appropriate medicines for children, and
the HTA programme is delighted to be supporting the new network to help address
this largely neglected area.” The HTA programme intends to commission a variety of
research projects (including primary, secondary and methodological designs) to
help support the new network, with investigators from all disciplines invited
to bid for research work in the area. “This
is the latest step in the Department of Health’s pediatric medicines strategy
which aims to improve children’s health through the development of children’s
medicines,” says Professor Sally Davies, Head of Research & Development at
the Department of Health. “Currently, most medicines are designed and tested in
adults, so healthcare professionals must use their skill and judgment when
prescribing medicines for children. We want to see safer and more effective
treatments designed specifically for children. Research commissioned and funded
through the Health Technology Assessment programme, and coordinated through the
Medicines for Children Research Network, is vital in achieving this.” (http://www.hta.nhsweb.nhs.uk/news/nes
item.htm)
21. What is the
text about?
A. Design
medicines for children.
B. Test
medicines for children.
C. Program
medicines for children.
D. Suggest
medicines for children.
E. Research
medicines for children.
22. How can
children’s health be improved?
It can be
improved through ….
A. the
research of the medicines
B. the
development of children’s medicines
C. investigating
safe and appropriate medicines
D. commissioning
a portfolio of research projects
E. setting
up to target the development of medicines
23. The following
statements are true, EXCEPT ….
A. In the UK less half of the medicines prescribed
for babies.
B. The program is commissioning a
portfolio of research project.
C. The HTA program aims to
commission a variety of projects.
D. Currently, most medicines are
designed and tested in adults.
E. Researchers
are invited to submit ideas for research into medicines for children.
24. “…. and up to a quarter of all medicines prescribed
in pediatric inpatient care fall into this category,” says Professor Tom
Walley” (Paragraph 2) The
underlined word is similar to ….
A. given
B. asked
C. required
D. suggested
E. recommended
25. “The MCRN has been set up to investigate safe
and appropriate medicines for children, and the HTA programme is delighted to
be supporting the new network to help address this largely neglected area.” (Paragraph 2)
What
does the word “set up” mean?
A.
managed
B.
modified
C.
established
D.
accomplished
E. distinguished
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following
text.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a bacteria that has
been isolated from sea water, shell fish, plankton and salt springs. It has
been a major cause of food poisoning in Japan and the Japanese have done
several studies on it. They have confirmed the presence of Vibrio
parahaemolyticus in the north and central Pacific with the highest abundance in
inshore waters, and particularly in or near large harbors. A
man named Nishio studied the relationship between the chloride content of sea
water and seasonal distribution of Vibrio parahaemolyticus and concluded that
while the isolation of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was independent of the sodium
chloride content, the distribution of Vibrio parahaemolyticus in the sea water
was dependent on the water temperature. In fact it has been isolated in high
frequencies during summer, from June to September, but was not isolated with
the same frequency in winter. Within
four or five days eating contaminated foods, a person will begin to experience
diarrhea, the most common symptom: this will very often be accompanied by
stomach cramps, nausea, and vomiting. Headache and fever, with or without
chills, may also be experienced.
26. What does
the text describe?
A. A bacteria
B. shell fish
C. poisoned foods
D. Japanese people
E. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
27. What is the
main idea of the third paragraph?
A. The incubation period of the illness.
B. The effect of the contaminated foods.
C. Eating contaminated foods.
D. The experience of diarrhea.
E. The symptom of diarrhea.
28. Which of the
following locations would be the most likely to have a high concentration of
Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
A. the middle of the ocean
B.
sediment
C. a bay
D. a sea
E. water
29. What is the
most common symptom of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
A.
diarrhea
B.
nausea
C.
vomiting
D.
headache
E.
fever
30. “….. this
will very often be accompanied by stomach cramps, …” (paragraph 3)
The underlined word means most nearly ….
A. illness
B. noises
C. toxicity
D. sever pain
E. high temperature
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following
text.
The nuclear
family, consisting of a mother, a father, and their children, may be more an
American ideal than an American reality. Of course, the so-called traditional
American family was always more varied than we had been led to believe, reflecting
the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious customs among different
American groups.
The most reason government
statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American families
fit the traditional mold and another third consists of married couple who
either have no children or have none still living at home. Of the final one
third, about 20mpercent of the total number of American households are single
people, usually women over sixty-five year of age. A small percentage, about 3
percent of the total, consist of unmarried people who choose to live together,
and the rest, about percent, are single, usually divorced parents, with at
least one child. Today, these varied family types are typical, and therefore,
normal. Apparently, many American are achieving supportive relationships in
family forms other than traditional one.
31. What would be
the best title for this reading passage?
A. The traditional American family
B. The current American family
C. The nuclear family
D. The ideal family
E. The modern family
32. What is the
main idea of the first paragraph?
A. The traditional family
B. The nuclear family
C. The perfect family
D. The small family
E. The real family
33. Which of the
following statements is true?
A..Racial, ethnic, and religious group
groups have preserved the traditional family structure.
B. There have always been a wide variety
of family arrangements in the United Sates.
C. The ideal American family is best
structure.
D. Fewer married couples are having
children.
E. The current American family is
concerned with the number of children.
34.
“….that only about one third of all current American families fit
the traditional mold…”
(Paragraph 2)
The word current is similar to
….
A. typical
B. present
C. perfect
D. traditional
E. advanced
35. According to
the passage, married couples whose children have been grown or who have no
children represent ….
A. 33,5 percent of households
B. 20 percent of households
C.
7 percent of households
D. 5 percent of household
E. 3 percent of households
Questions 36 to 40 refer to the following text.
Ned Kelly–Guilty or Innocent
This
project has been based on a computer program about the trial of Ned Kelly which
gave us the evidence used in the original trial. After examining a number of
incidents, we came to the conclusion that Ned Kelly was treated unfairly as he
only committed half the crimes he was accused of.
In the
Fitzpatrick incident, Ned was charged with the attempted murder of Constable
Fitzpatrick. We believe that Ned was not guilty as Fitzpatrick’s story is not
believable because (i) he contradicted himself; (ii) he had just been to the
pub and we think that the wounds he had on his arm were not from bullet shots
(which Fitzpatrick claimed) but from broken glass which he might have been
drinking his brandy in; (iii) and finally, he was kicked out of the police
force later on because of his reputation for lying.
In the
Stringybark Greek incident, Ned was charged with the willful murder of
Constables Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy. Ned resisted arrest and had to shoot
Lonigan three times. Kelly says that it was not murder but self defense and he
gave Lonigan a change to surrender. We feel that Mcintyre’s evidence is weak.
He said that the bullets came from the back and not from the front. Dr
Nicholson finds the opposite, stating that Loligan stood hid ground and met Ned
on equal terms.
The
Glenrowan incident was probably the most bold battle of the Kelly gang. The
police sent up their base in the Jones’ hotel. Although this was a gallant
battle it was also a fatal battle as Joe Byrne, Dan Kelly and Steve Hart died
as a cause of it. Ned was taken prisoner and taken to their trial. We believe
that Ned is guilty on the charge of holding hostages, endangering the
community, and the shooting of police troopers and hostages.
In our
opinion, we say that Ned is guilty for half the things he did but he received
an unfair trial. He shouldn’t have been hung publicly but given a long
imprisonment.
36.What does the text above
discuss?
A. Planned murder.
B. Innocent murder.
C. The original trial program of Ned
Kelly.
D. Ned Kelly with the Computer program.
E. Fitzpatrick
and Stringybark Greek incident.
37. What does the second
paragraph talk about?
A. Ned was the attempted murder of
Constable Fitzpatrick.
B. Fitzpatrick
was the attempted murder of Constable Ned.
C. Ned was accused the attempted murder of
Constable Fitzpatrick.
D. Ned got accident with the attempted
murder of Constable Fitzpatrick.
E. Fitzpatrick got an accident with the attempted
murder of Constable Ned.
38. What incident happened in the
Stringybark Gree?
A. The bullets came from the back killed
Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy.
B. The willful murder of Constables
Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy occurred.
C. Ned Kelly resisted arrest and had to
shoot Lonigan three times.
D. The bullets came from the back shot by
Ned Kelly.
E. The willful murder of Constables Ned
Kelly occurred.
39. “In the Stringybark Greek incident, Ned was charged with the willful
murder of Constables Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy.” (Paragraph 3)
What does the word
“willful” mean?
A. intentional
B. wonderful
C. hopeful
D. careful
E. confident
40. “The
Glenrowan incident was probably the most bold battle of the Kelly gang.”
(Paragraph 4)
The word “bold” means ….
A. fear
B. weak
C. strong
D. afraid
E. brave
Questions 41 to 43 refer to the following text.
Davis & Reeves
16 Salisbury Road,
Tsinshatsui Kowloon
Hong
Kong
Tel. (852) 03721 1121 Fax:
(852) 03739-4466
Dear Dr. Li Han
Enviro-Chemicals,
Inc.
7499 Hannam-dong
Yongsan-ku
Seul, Korea
Dear Dr. Han,
We have received your
registration for our annual conference.
Information about hotels and transportation are found in the enclosed
conference brochure.
If you need further
assistance in arranging your trip, please call our
conference coordinator in Hong Kong at (852) 03 721 1121.
We look forward to seeing you
at conference.
Sincerely,
Li
Zhaolie
Conference Registration
|
41. What is the purpose of the
letter?
A. To acknowledge conference
registration.
B. To invite speakers to the conference.
C. To get money for the conference.
D. To make travel arrangements.
E. To create the new business.
42. What is enclosed in the
letter?
A. A map of the conference location.
B. A brochure about the conference.
C. An invitation to the conference.
D. Tickets for the conference.
E.
A registration form.
43. Who should Dr. Han contact if
she has other questions?
A. The conference coordinator?
B. A hotel receptionist
C. Davis & Reeves
D. A ticket agent
E. Le Zhaolie
Questions 44 to 45 refer to the
following text.
NOTICE:
To make your shopping at Senayan City as soon as possible, you are
invited to use our concierge services at the Concierge Desk. The Concierge
Desk is located on the main level, beside the Gourmet Food Shop. We offer a
range of shopper services including public transportation schedules, direct
lines to taxi services, and package mailing. We also have a complete database
of merchandise in our stores, so that we can direct you to the store that
will best suit you need. You may visit the Concierge Desk in person, or you
may call from the direct-line telephone at any of lighted directory maps in
the mall.
|
44. What is the
purpose of the text?
A. To inform the customers to use
concierge services.
B.
To invite the customers to shop in Senayan
City.
C. To inform the customers to shop.
D. To go shopping to Senayan City.
E. To use facilities for shopping.
45. What is one
way to get in touch with the Concierge Desk?
A. Stop one of their representatives.
B. Page them from a store.
C. Use the direct phone.
D. Write a letter.
E. Visit directly.
Questions 46 to 50 refer to the following text!
West
Cornwall
The area that was
once the engine room of Britain’s
mining industry has a haunting beauty. The towns of Redruth and its sibling
Camborne were West Cornwall’s mining
heartland. It is a place where one must spend time to recognize the beauty.
Five kilometers to the west, the village
of Portreath overlooks an
area of sand, book ended by cliffs.
Portreath is the best village in the
area. It began as the playground of the Redruth Camborne miners. Now it is
slightly middle-class resort filled in summer with families on holidays. In the
mid 19th century the small harbour bustled with sailing vessels.
Corwall’s mining land-scapes have
been nominated for World Heritage status. At dusk, we climb Cam Brea, an Iron
Age settlement and hill fort close to Redruth. We count more than a dozen mine
chimneys against the evening skyline. Standing on top of Cam Brea, it is hard
to believe that 150 years ago these relics of the mining industry shrieked with
the sound of heavy machinery. Now, except for chirruping of the birds, all is
silent.
If you’ve got the legs and the
stamina there’s no better way to get to know Cornwall’s wild Atlantic seaboard than to
hike it. The National Trust looks after 260 km of Cornish coastline, sand dunes
and sheltered bays for walkers. On a breezy day with the sun flitting in and
out of clouds, we take the local bus from Redruth to St Agnes and hike 12 km
south to Portreath.
The 18 km cycling trail is the best
in that part of the country. It takes you from Portreath in the west to the
river at Devoran in the southeast. The path follows the tracks of the horse
drawn tramways that once hauled ore to the ports.
Surfing is popular on the beaches of
west Cornwall.
There is always a hardly group of surfers in the waves in all weather. New quay
is the surf capital but there are plenty of good beaches north towards Padstow
and south to St Ives.
(Adapted from
article in week-end Australian, February, 2005)
46. What does the
text mainly discuss?
A. Cornwall’s
mining land-scapes
B. The Redruth Camborn miner
C. Britain’s mining industry
D. Cornwall’s
wild Atlantic
E. The best Portreath area
47. What is the
main idea of the third paragraph?
A. World Heritage status.
B. Chirruping of the birds.
C. Standing on top of Cam Brea.
D. Iron Age settlement and hill fort.
E. Corwall’s mining land-scapes.
48. What happened
if you had the legs and the stamina?
There is no … Cornwall’s wild Atlantic seaboard.
A. better method to know
B. better way to get
C. good method to reach
D. good way to touch
E. better way to arrive
49. “Standing on top of Cam Brea, it is hard
to believe that 150 years ago these relics of the mining industry shrieked
with the sound of heavy machinery.” (Paragraph 3)
The underlined word has the same meaning as ….
A.
influenced
B.
shouted
C.
made
D.
cried
E.
voiced
50. The towns of Redruth and its sibling
Camborne were West Cornwall’s mining
heartland.
The word “sibling” is similar to ….
A.
cousin
B.
sister
C.
relative
D.
branch
E.
center
TRY OUT UJIAN NASIONAL
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2008/2009
____________________________________________________________________________
Mata
Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Kelas/
Program : IPA/ IPS/BAHASA
Waktu : 120 menit
_____________________________________________________________________________
SCRIPT:
Listening Section
In this section
of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are 3 parts to this section, with special directions for each
part.
Part I.
Questions 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of
the test, you will hear some dialogues or questions spoken in English. The
dialogues or questions will be spoken two times. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say.
After you hear
a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen
to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man : How about working late tonight?
Woman : I can’t. I have plans.
Narrator: What
will the woman do?
You will also
hear: Sample
answer
A. Do her plan.
B. Leave her
work.
C. Work over
time.
D. Work late
tonight.
E. Give the
work to the man.
The best answer
to the question “What will the woman do?” is choice (A), “Do her plan.”
Therefore, you should choose
answer (A).
The
following dialogue is for question 1 to 3.
Man: Did
you watch that TV program last night about the sky diver whose parachute didn’t
open after he had jumped from his plane?
Woman: No, I didn’t. Did he die?
Man: No, it’s really unbelievable how he
could have survived such as a free fall, much less live to tell about it on
television!
Woman: What happened?
Man: Neither
of his chutes open as he plummeted to the ground.
When they found him,
they thought he was dead. Doctors said he’d never walk again, but he proved
them wrong.
Woman: How
long was he recuperating?
Man: He
spent eighteen months in the hospital while his bones were mending, most of
which were broken. He was no sooner discharged than he went back and jumped out
of a plane again.
Woman: Gee, some people sure do crazy
things!
Narrator:
1. What is the conversation about?
2. What caused the man’s accident?
3. Why was the man in the hospital?
The
following dialogue is for question 4.
Man: Hi, Anna. Where have you been?
Woman: I’ve
been from the beach.
Man: Wow…!
It sounds interesting.
Woman: Yes,
it’s beautiful. I like it very much.
The weather is nice
today.
Narrator: What
picture goes to the conversation?
The
following monologue is for question 5.
Man:
I’m an
office employee. I usually arrive at the office at seven. I read newspaper
everyday before handling the work. I usually work with the computer to finish
my job. Unfortunately, my health does not support my activity. Now, I am
staying at hospital because I am suffering a kidney disease. My doctor said
that I must be hospitalized for many days until I am getting well. In the
medication, the specific cause of the pain is treated. Until recently, the
doctor thought that it is not wise to give pain medicine to me with severe abdominal
pain until a diagnosis is made because the medicine might mask important
symptoms. Pain relievers are often now be given while tests are in progress.
Narrator: What
picture goes to the story?
Part II.
Questions 6
to 12
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several questions
or statements spoken in English. The questions and responses will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say. You have to choose the best
response to each question or statement.
Questions 6 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
6. Woman: Hi, Andrew! Why didn’t you come to the
party last night?
Man: My
sister was sick. I must accompany her to the doctor.
Narrator: What does the woman express?
woman: ….
A. I am pity on her.
B. I am surprised.
C. I am disappointed.
D. I am sorry to hear that.
E. I am worried about it.
7. Man : Marta, do you like staying in Jakarta for long time?
Narrator :
What does the woman express?
Woman :
….
A. I’d love to.
B. It
doesn’t matter.
C. I’m feeling happy.
D. That’s okay. I’ll do
it.
E. Absolutely! You’re
right.
8. Woman : Today is your birthday.
Narrator :
What does the man express?
Man :
….
A. Why didn’t you come to my party tonight?
B. Would you like to come to my
party tonight?
C. Will you like me to come to your party tonight?
D. Won’t you like me to come to your party tonight?
E. Would you like me to come to your party tonight?
9. Woman : Op! It’s very painful. I sprained my
ankle. I can’t drive my car.
Narrator : What does the man
express?
Man : ….
A. Poor you.
B. How pity you are.
C. Would I lift your car?
D. Can I drive your car, please?
E. Could you help me, please?
10. Woman :
Would you mind coming to my wedding party?
Narrator : What does the man
respond?
Man : ….
A. I’d love to, but I can’t.
B. I am sorry I am busy.
C. I promise I’ll come.
D. It doesn’t matter.
E. I don’t have time.
11. Man
: How was your dinner at an Italian restaurant last night?
Woman
: All
food is very delicious. The services are very good.
The waiters are
friendly.
Narrator : What does the woman express?
Woman
: ….
A.
I feel happy.
B. I am satisfied.
C. I like it very much.
D. I agree with you.
E. I am proud of you.
12. Man : Excuse me, Mia. I should practice
speaking Japanese.
Can you speak
Japanese?
Narrator :
What does the woman express?
Woman :
….
A.
I’m really confused.
B. I am sorry. I can’t.
C. It’s my problem.
D. I’ll try. I’ll do it.
E. Perhaps I can do it.
Part III
Questions 13
to 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear a monologue. The monologue will be spoken two times. It
will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say.
After you hear a monologue and the questions about it,
read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to
the questions you have heard.
Questions
13 to 15 refer to the following story.
Woman:
Robert
Edwards was blinded in an automobile accident nine years ago. He was also
partially deaf because of old age. Last week, he was strolling near his home
when a thunderstorm approached. He took refuge under a tree and was struck by
lighting. He was knocked to the ground and woke up some 20 minutes later, lying
face down in water below a tree. He went into the house and lay down in bed. A
short time later, he woke; his legs were numb and he was trembling, but when he
opened his eyes, he could see the clock across the room fading in and out in
front of him. When his wife entered, he saw her for the first time in nine
years. Doctors confirm that he has regained his sight and hearing apparently
from the flash or lighting, but they are unable to explain the occurrence. The
only possible explanation offered by one doctor was that, since Edwards lost
his sight as a result of trauma in a terrible accident, perhaps the only way it
could be restored was by another trauma.
13.
Narrator: What is the topic of the story?
14.
Narrator: What was the first thing that
Robert Edwards saw after being struck by lighting?
15.
Narrator: What was Edwards doing when he
was struck by lighting?
This is the end of the listening section
C
D
E
|
5. A B
|
|
C D
E
Part II.
Questions 6
to 12
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several
questions or statements spoken in English. The questions and responses will be
spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you
must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You have to choose
the best response to each question or statement.
6. Mark your
answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
9. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
11. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
12. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
Part III.
Questions 13
to 15.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear a monologue.
The monologue will be spoken two times. It will not be printed in your test
book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
After you hear a monologue and the questions about it,
read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to
the questions you have heard.
13.
A. Robert Edwards’ blindness.
B. Robert Edwards’ accident.
C. Robert Edwards’ suffering.
D. Robert Edwards’ tragedy.
E. Robert Edwards’ life.
14.
A. His wife.
B. lighting.
C. a clock.
D. a tree.
E. a car.
15.
A. hiding from the storm under a tree.
B. lying on the ground.
C. climbing a tree.
D. driving a car.
E. staying at home.
This is the end of the listening section
Questions 16 to 20 refer to the following
text.
There have been a number of
important American novelists in this century, but F. Scott Fitzgerald is one of
the more interesting ones. Born in 1896 and educated at Princeton,
he wrote novels that describe the post-war American society, very much caught
up in the rhythms of jazz.
In
1920, the same year that he published his first book, This Side of Paradise, he
married Zelda Sayre, also a writer. His most famous book, The Greet Gatsby,
appeared in 1925.
Fitzgerald
had a great natural talent, but he became a compulsive drinker. A brilliant
success in his youth, he never made the adjustments necessary to a maturing
writer in a changing world. His later novels, All the Sad Young Men, Tender is
the Night, and The Last Tycoon, were less successful, so that when he died in
1940 his books were out of print and he had been almost forgotten.
His
reputation now is far greater than it was in his lifetime, especially since the
film version of his novel The Great Gatsby was released.
16. What is the text about?
A. Film versions of F. Scott
Fitzgerald’s.
B. First novels by young authors.
C. F. Scott Fitzgerald’s work.
D. Novelists of this century.
E. F. Scott Fitzgerald’s expert.
17. What is the main idea of the
third paragraph?
A. An ability movement.
B. A talent permanent.
C. A behavior change.
D. A mature thought.
E. A successful work.
18. Which of Fitzgerald’s novels
has been made into movie?
A. All the Sad Young Men.
B. Tender is the Night.
C. The Great Gatsby.
D. The Last Tycoon
E. Zelda Sayre.
19. In 1920, the same year that he published his first book, This Side
of Paradise, he married Zelda Sayre,
also a writer. (Paragraph 2)
The underlined word has
the same meaning as ….
A. Happiness
B. Delighted
C. Perfect
D. Blesses
E. Heaven
20. What is the purpose of the text?
A. To analyze the writer.
B. To criticize the writer
C. To persuade the
listener.
D. To inform the reader.
E. To entertain the reader.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following text.
MEDICINE FOR CHILDREN
Researchers are being invited to
submit ideas for research into medicines or children as part of a new initiative
by the Health Technology Assessment (HTA) programme. The programme is
commissioning a portfolio of research projects into the area as part of its
work with the newly created Medicines for Children Research Network (MCRN), set
up to target the development of safe and effective medicines for the treatment
of youngsters aged newborn to 18.
“Recent studies suggest that in the UK more than half of the medicines prescribed
for babies in neonatal intensive care are unlicensed or off-label, and up to a
quarter of all medicines prescribed in pediatric inpatient care fall into this
category,” says Professor Tom Walley, Director of the HTA programme and
Professor of Clinical Pharmacology in the Prescribing Research Group at the
Department of Pharmacology and Therapeutics, University of Liverpool. “The MCRN
has been set up to investigate safe and appropriate medicines for children, and
the HTA programme is delighted to be supporting the new network to help address
this largely neglected area.” The HTA programme intends to commission a variety of
research projects (including primary, secondary and methodological designs) to
help support the new network, with investigators from all disciplines invited
to bid for research work in the area. “This
is the latest step in the Department of Health’s pediatric medicines strategy
which aims to improve children’s health through the development of children’s
medicines,” says Professor Sally Davies, Head of Research & Development at
the Department of Health. “Currently, most medicines are designed and tested in
adults, so healthcare professionals must use their skill and judgment when
prescribing medicines for children. We want to see safer and more effective
treatments designed specifically for children. Research commissioned and funded
through the Health Technology Assessment programme, and coordinated through the
Medicines for Children Research Network, is vital in achieving this.” (http://www.hta.nhsweb.nhs.uk/news/nes
item.htm)
21. What is the
text about?
A. Design
medicines for children.
B. Test
medicines for children.
C. Program
medicines for children.
D. Suggest
medicines for children.
E. Research
medicines for children.
22. How can
children’s health be improved?
It can be
improved through ….
A. the
research of the medicines
B. the
development of children’s medicines
C. investigating
safe and appropriate medicines
D. commissioning
a portfolio of research projects
E. setting
up to target the development of medicines
23. The following
statements are true, EXCEPT ….
A. In the UK less half of the medicines prescribed
for babies.
B. The program is commissioning a
portfolio of research project.
C. The HTA program aims to
commission a variety of projects.
D. Currently, most medicines are
designed and tested in adults.
E. Researchers
are invited to submit ideas for research into medicines for children.
24. “…. and up to a quarter of all medicines prescribed
in pediatric inpatient care fall into this category,” says Professor Tom
Walley” (Paragraph 2) The
underlined word is similar to ….
A. given
B. asked
C. required
D. suggested
E. recommended
25. “The MCRN has been set up to investigate safe
and appropriate medicines for children, and the HTA programme is delighted to
be supporting the new network to help address this largely neglected area.” (Paragraph 2)
What
does the word “set up” mean?
A.
managed
B.
modified
C.
established
D.
accomplished
E. distinguished
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following
text.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a bacteria that has
been isolated from sea water, shell fish, plankton and salt springs. It has
been a major cause of food poisoning in Japan and the Japanese have done
several studies on it. They have confirmed the presence of Vibrio
parahaemolyticus in the north and central Pacific with the highest abundance in
inshore waters, and particularly in or near large harbors. A
man named Nishio studied the relationship between the chloride content of sea
water and seasonal distribution of Vibrio parahaemolyticus and concluded that
while the isolation of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was independent of the sodium
chloride content, the distribution of Vibrio parahaemolyticus in the sea water
was dependent on the water temperature. In fact it has been isolated in high
frequencies during summer, from June to September, but was not isolated with
the same frequency in winter. Within
four or five days eating contaminated foods, a person will begin to experience
diarrhea, the most common symptom: this will very often be accompanied by
stomach cramps, nausea, and vomiting. Headache and fever, with or without
chills, may also be experienced.
26. What does
the text describe?
A. A bacteria
B. shell fish
C. poisoned foods
D. Japanese people
E. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
27. What is the
main idea of the third paragraph?
A. The incubation period of the illness.
B. The effect of the contaminated foods.
C. Eating contaminated foods.
D. The experience of diarrhea.
E. The symptom of diarrhea.
28. Which of the
following locations would be the most likely to have a high concentration of
Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
A. the middle of the ocean
B.
sediment
C. a bay
D. a sea
E. water
29. What is the
most common symptom of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
A.
diarrhea
B.
nausea
C.
vomiting
D.
headache
E.
fever
30. “….. this
will very often be accompanied by stomach cramps, …” (paragraph 3)
The underlined word means most nearly ….
A. illness
B. noises
C. toxicity
D. sever pain
E. high temperature
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following
text.
The nuclear
family, consisting of a mother, a father, and their children, may be more an
American ideal than an American reality. Of course, the so-called traditional
American family was always more varied than we had been led to believe, reflecting
the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious customs among different
American groups.
The most reason government
statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American families
fit the traditional mold and another third consists of married couple who
either have no children or have none still living at home. Of the final one
third, about 20mpercent of the total number of American households are single
people, usually women over sixty-five year of age. A small percentage, about 3
percent of the total, consist of unmarried people who choose to live together,
and the rest, about percent, are single, usually divorced parents, with at
least one child. Today, these varied family types are typical, and therefore,
normal. Apparently, many American are achieving supportive relationships in
family forms other than traditional one.
31. What would be
the best title for this reading passage?
A. The traditional American family
B. The current American family
C. The nuclear family
D. The ideal family
E. The modern family
32. What is the
main idea of the first paragraph?
A. The traditional family
B. The nuclear family
C. The perfect family
D. The small family
E. The real family
33. Which of the
following statements is true?
A..Racial, ethnic, and religious group
groups have preserved the traditional family structure.
B. There have always been a wide variety
of family arrangements in the United Sates.
C. The ideal American family is best
structure.
D. Fewer married couples are having
children.
E. The current American family is
concerned with the number of children.
34.
“….that only about one third of all current American families fit
the traditional mold…”
(Paragraph 2)
The word current is similar to
….
A. typical
B. present
C. perfect
D. traditional
E. advanced
35. According to
the passage, married couples whose children have been grown or who have no
children represent ….
A. 33,5 percent of households
B. 20 percent of households
C.
7 percent of households
D. 5 percent of household
E. 3 percent of households
Questions 36 to 40 refer to the following text.
Ned Kelly–Guilty or Innocent
This
project has been based on a computer program about the trial of Ned Kelly which
gave us the evidence used in the original trial. After examining a number of
incidents, we came to the conclusion that Ned Kelly was treated unfairly as he
only committed half the crimes he was accused of.
In the
Fitzpatrick incident, Ned was charged with the attempted murder of Constable
Fitzpatrick. We believe that Ned was not guilty as Fitzpatrick’s story is not
believable because (i) he contradicted himself; (ii) he had just been to the
pub and we think that the wounds he had on his arm were not from bullet shots
(which Fitzpatrick claimed) but from broken glass which he might have been
drinking his brandy in; (iii) and finally, he was kicked out of the police
force later on because of his reputation for lying.
In the
Stringybark Greek incident, Ned was charged with the willful murder of
Constables Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy. Ned resisted arrest and had to shoot
Lonigan three times. Kelly says that it was not murder but self defense and he
gave Lonigan a change to surrender. We feel that Mcintyre’s evidence is weak.
He said that the bullets came from the back and not from the front. Dr
Nicholson finds the opposite, stating that Loligan stood hid ground and met Ned
on equal terms.
The
Glenrowan incident was probably the most bold battle of the Kelly gang. The
police sent up their base in the Jones’ hotel. Although this was a gallant
battle it was also a fatal battle as Joe Byrne, Dan Kelly and Steve Hart died
as a cause of it. Ned was taken prisoner and taken to their trial. We believe
that Ned is guilty on the charge of holding hostages, endangering the
community, and the shooting of police troopers and hostages.
In our
opinion, we say that Ned is guilty for half the things he did but he received
an unfair trial. He shouldn’t have been hung publicly but given a long
imprisonment.
36.What does the text above
discuss?
A. Planned murder.
B. Innocent murder.
C. The original trial program of Ned
Kelly.
D. Ned Kelly with the Computer program.
E. Fitzpatrick
and Stringybark Greek incident.
37. What does the second
paragraph talk about?
A. Ned was the attempted murder of
Constable Fitzpatrick.
B. Fitzpatrick
was the attempted murder of Constable Ned.
C. Ned was accused the attempted murder of
Constable Fitzpatrick.
D. Ned got accident with the attempted
murder of Constable Fitzpatrick.
E. Fitzpatrick got an accident with the attempted
murder of Constable Ned.
38. What incident happened in the
Stringybark Gree?
A. The bullets came from the back killed
Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy.
B. The willful murder of Constables
Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy occurred.
C. Ned Kelly resisted arrest and had to
shoot Lonigan three times.
D. The bullets came from the back shot by
Ned Kelly.
E. The willful murder of Constables Ned
Kelly occurred.
39. “In the Stringybark Greek incident, Ned was charged with the willful
murder of Constables Lonigan, Scanlon and Kennedy.” (Paragraph 3)
What does the word
“willful” mean?
A. intentional
B. wonderful
C. hopeful
D. careful
E. confident
40. “The
Glenrowan incident was probably the most bold battle of the Kelly gang.”
(Paragraph 4)
The word “bold” means ….
A. fear
B. weak
C. strong
D. afraid
E. brave
Questions 41 to 43 refer to the following text.
Davis & Reeves
16 Salisbury Road,
Tsinshatsui Kowloon
Hong
Kong
Tel. (852) 03721 1121 Fax:
(852) 03739-4466
Dear Dr. Li Han
Enviro-Chemicals,
Inc.
7499 Hannam-dong
Yongsan-ku
Seul, Korea
Dear Dr. Han,
We have received your
registration for our annual conference.
Information about hotels and transportation are found in the enclosed
conference brochure.
If you need further
assistance in arranging your trip, please call our
conference coordinator in Hong Kong at (852) 03 721 1121.
We look forward to seeing you
at conference.
Sincerely,
Li
Zhaolie
Conference Registration
|
41. What is the purpose of the
letter?
A. To acknowledge conference
registration.
B. To invite speakers to the conference.
C. To get money for the conference.
D. To make travel arrangements.
E. To create the new business.
42. What is enclosed in the
letter?
A. A map of the conference location.
B. A brochure about the conference.
C. An invitation to the conference.
D. Tickets for the conference.
E.
A registration form.
43. Who should Dr. Han contact if
she has other questions?
A. The conference coordinator?
B. A hotel receptionist
C. Davis & Reeves
D. A ticket agent
E. Le Zhaolie
Questions 44 to 45 refer to the
following text.
NOTICE:
To make your shopping at Senayan City as soon as possible, you are
invited to use our concierge services at the Concierge Desk. The Concierge
Desk is located on the main level, beside the Gourmet Food Shop. We offer a
range of shopper services including public transportation schedules, direct
lines to taxi services, and package mailing. We also have a complete database
of merchandise in our stores, so that we can direct you to the store that
will best suit you need. You may visit the Concierge Desk in person, or you
may call from the direct-line telephone at any of lighted directory maps in
the mall.
|
44. What is the
purpose of the text?
A. To inform the customers to use
concierge services.
B.
To invite the customers to shop in Senayan
City.
C. To inform the customers to shop.
D. To go shopping to Senayan City.
E. To use facilities for shopping.
45. What is one
way to get in touch with the Concierge Desk?
A. Stop one of their representatives.
B. Page them from a store.
C. Use the direct phone.
D. Write a letter.
E. Visit directly.
Questions 46 to 50 refer to the following text!
West
Cornwall
The area that was
once the engine room of Britain’s
mining industry has a haunting beauty. The towns of Redruth and its sibling
Camborne were West Cornwall’s mining
heartland. It is a place where one must spend time to recognize the beauty.
Five kilometers to the west, the village
of Portreath overlooks an
area of sand, book ended by cliffs.
Portreath is the best village in the
area. It began as the playground of the Redruth Camborne miners. Now it is
slightly middle-class resort filled in summer with families on holidays. In the
mid 19th century the small harbour bustled with sailing vessels.
Corwall’s mining land-scapes have
been nominated for World Heritage status. At dusk, we climb Cam Brea, an Iron
Age settlement and hill fort close to Redruth. We count more than a dozen mine
chimneys against the evening skyline. Standing on top of Cam Brea, it is hard
to believe that 150 years ago these relics of the mining industry shrieked with
the sound of heavy machinery. Now, except for chirruping of the birds, all is
silent.
If you’ve got the legs and the
stamina there’s no better way to get to know Cornwall’s wild Atlantic seaboard than to
hike it. The National Trust looks after 260 km of Cornish coastline, sand dunes
and sheltered bays for walkers. On a breezy day with the sun flitting in and
out of clouds, we take the local bus from Redruth to St Agnes and hike 12 km
south to Portreath.
The 18 km cycling trail is the best
in that part of the country. It takes you from Portreath in the west to the
river at Devoran in the southeast. The path follows the tracks of the horse
drawn tramways that once hauled ore to the ports.
Surfing is popular on the beaches of
west Cornwall.
There is always a hardly group of surfers in the waves in all weather. New quay
is the surf capital but there are plenty of good beaches north towards Padstow
and south to St Ives.
(Adapted from
article in week-end Australian, February, 2005)
46. What does the
text mainly discuss?
A. Cornwall’s
mining land-scapes
B. The Redruth Camborn miner
C. Britain’s mining industry
D. Cornwall’s
wild Atlantic
E. The best Portreath area
47. What is the
main idea of the third paragraph?
A. World Heritage status.
B. Chirruping of the birds.
C. Standing on top of Cam Brea.
D. Iron Age settlement and hill fort.
E. Corwall’s mining land-scapes.
48. What happened
if you had the legs and the stamina?
There is no … Cornwall’s wild Atlantic seaboard.
A. better method to know
B. better way to get
C. good method to reach
D. good way to touch
E. better way to arrive
49. “Standing on top of Cam Brea, it is hard
to believe that 150 years ago these relics of the mining industry shrieked
with the sound of heavy machinery.” (Paragraph 3)
The underlined word has the same meaning as ….
A.
influenced
B.
shouted
C.
made
D.
cried
E.
voiced
50. The towns of Redruth and its sibling
Camborne were West Cornwall’s mining
heartland.
The word “sibling” is similar to ….
A.
cousin
B.
sister
C.
relative
D.
branch
E.
center
TRY OUT UJIAN NASIONAL
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2008/2009
____________________________________________________________________________
Mata
Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Kelas/
Program : IPA/ IPS/BAHASA
Waktu : 120 menit
_____________________________________________________________________________
SCRIPT:
Listening Section
In this section
of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are 3 parts to this section, with special directions for each
part.
Part I.
Questions 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of
the test, you will hear some dialogues or questions spoken in English. The
dialogues or questions will be spoken two times. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say.
After you hear
a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen
to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man : How about working late tonight?
Woman : I can’t. I have plans.
Narrator: What
will the woman do?
You will also
hear: Sample
answer
A. Do her plan.
B. Leave her
work.
C. Work over
time.
D. Work late
tonight.
E. Give the
work to the man.
The best answer
to the question “What will the woman do?” is choice (A), “Do her plan.”
Therefore, you should choose
answer (A).
The
following dialogue is for question 1 to 3.
Man: Did
you watch that TV program last night about the sky diver whose parachute didn’t
open after he had jumped from his plane?
Woman: No, I didn’t. Did he die?
Man: No, it’s really unbelievable how he
could have survived such as a free fall, much less live to tell about it on
television!
Woman: What happened?
Man: Neither
of his chutes open as he plummeted to the ground.
When they found him,
they thought he was dead. Doctors said he’d never walk again, but he proved
them wrong.
Woman: How
long was he recuperating?
Man: He
spent eighteen months in the hospital while his bones were mending, most of
which were broken. He was no sooner discharged than he went back and jumped out
of a plane again.
Woman: Gee, some people sure do crazy
things!
Narrator:
1. What is the conversation about?
2. What caused the man’s accident?
3. Why was the man in the hospital?
The
following dialogue is for question 4.
Man: Hi, Anna. Where have you been?
Woman: I’ve
been from the beach.
Man: Wow…!
It sounds interesting.
Woman: Yes,
it’s beautiful. I like it very much.
The weather is nice
today.
Narrator: What
picture goes to the conversation?
The
following monologue is for question 5.
Man:
I’m an
office employee. I usually arrive at the office at seven. I read newspaper
everyday before handling the work. I usually work with the computer to finish
my job. Unfortunately, my health does not support my activity. Now, I am
staying at hospital because I am suffering a kidney disease. My doctor said
that I must be hospitalized for many days until I am getting well. In the
medication, the specific cause of the pain is treated. Until recently, the
doctor thought that it is not wise to give pain medicine to me with severe abdominal
pain until a diagnosis is made because the medicine might mask important
symptoms. Pain relievers are often now be given while tests are in progress.
Narrator: What
picture goes to the story?
Part II.
Questions 6
to 12
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several questions
or statements spoken in English. The questions and responses will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say. You have to choose the best
response to each question or statement.
Questions 6 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
6. Woman: Hi, Andrew! Why didn’t you come to the
party last night?
Man: My
sister was sick. I must accompany her to the doctor.
Narrator: What does the woman express?
woman: ….
A. I am pity on her.
B. I am surprised.
C. I am disappointed.
D. I am sorry to hear that.
E. I am worried about it.
7. Man : Marta, do you like staying in Jakarta for long time?
Narrator :
What does the woman express?
Woman :
….
A. I’d love to.
B. It
doesn’t matter.
C. I’m feeling happy.
D. That’s okay. I’ll do
it.
E. Absolutely! You’re
right.
8. Woman : Today is your birthday.
Narrator :
What does the man express?
Man :
….
A. Why didn’t you come to my party tonight?
B. Would you like to come to my
party tonight?
C. Will you like me to come to your party tonight?
D. Won’t you like me to come to your party tonight?
E. Would you like me to come to your party tonight?
9. Woman : Op! It’s very painful. I sprained my
ankle. I can’t drive my car.
Narrator : What does the man
express?
Man : ….
A. Poor you.
B. How pity you are.
C. Would I lift your car?
D. Can I drive your car, please?
E. Could you help me, please?
10. Woman :
Would you mind coming to my wedding party?
Narrator : What does the man
respond?
Man : ….
A. I’d love to, but I can’t.
B. I am sorry I am busy.
C. I promise I’ll come.
D. It doesn’t matter.
E. I don’t have time.
11. Man
: How was your dinner at an Italian restaurant last night?
Woman
: All
food is very delicious. The services are very good.
The waiters are
friendly.
Narrator : What does the woman express?
Woman
: ….
A.
I feel happy.
B. I am satisfied.
C. I like it very much.
D. I agree with you.
E. I am proud of you.
12. Man : Excuse me, Mia. I should practice
speaking Japanese.
Can you speak
Japanese?
Narrator :
What does the woman express?
Woman :
….
A.
I’m really confused.
B. I am sorry. I can’t.
C. It’s my problem.
D. I’ll try. I’ll do it.
E. Perhaps I can do it.
Part III
Questions 13
to 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear a monologue. The monologue will be spoken two times. It
will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say.
After you hear a monologue and the questions about it,
read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to
the questions you have heard.
Questions
13 to 15 refer to the following story.
Woman:
Robert
Edwards was blinded in an automobile accident nine years ago. He was also
partially deaf because of old age. Last week, he was strolling near his home
when a thunderstorm approached. He took refuge under a tree and was struck by
lighting. He was knocked to the ground and woke up some 20 minutes later, lying
face down in water below a tree. He went into the house and lay down in bed. A
short time later, he woke; his legs were numb and he was trembling, but when he
opened his eyes, he could see the clock across the room fading in and out in
front of him. When his wife entered, he saw her for the first time in nine
years. Doctors confirm that he has regained his sight and hearing apparently
from the flash or lighting, but they are unable to explain the occurrence. The
only possible explanation offered by one doctor was that, since Edwards lost
his sight as a result of trauma in a terrible accident, perhaps the only way it
could be restored was by another trauma.
13.
Narrator: What is the topic of the story?
14.
Narrator: What was the first thing that
Robert Edwards saw after being struck by lighting?
15.
Narrator: What was Edwards doing when he
was struck by lighting?
This is the end of the listening section
Posted in: PENDIDIKAN
1 comments:
So usefully for us and you all, Amien....
Post a Comment